Two question about Op amp with single-ended output
时间：12-12
整理：3721RD
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Like the attached ，cited from Razavi’s book.
1.The total capacitance at this node A roughly equal to CgS5 + CG56 + CDB5 + 2CGD6 + CDb3 + CGd3, Why 2 * Cgd6 ，is this miller effect. So the Av must to be -1 from Gate6 to drain6. How to get this number?
2.There is two paths from input to the output.The poles of A and N only affect path 1 , so in the total transfer function ,these poles only play a role of 50%.Why in the frequency response picture of the book, it seems these two poles is a factor in whole transfer function.
Thanks
1.The total capacitance at this node A roughly equal to CgS5 + CG56 + CDB5 + 2CGD6 + CDb3 + CGd3, Why 2 * Cgd6 ，is this miller effect. So the Av must to be -1 from Gate6 to drain6. How to get this number?
2.There is two paths from input to the output.The poles of A and N only affect path 1 , so in the total transfer function ,these poles only play a role of 50%.Why in the frequency response picture of the book, it seems these two poles is a factor in whole transfer function.
Thanks
1.你小信号分析一下就可以了，应该是假设Gm6约等于Gm7得到的结果
2.你写出两条传输函数再相加就可以得到结果
你那50%的说法体现在零点上