802.11a vs 8082.11n occupied bandwidth

Hi all,


straightforward question:

why is it that 802.11n signals occupy more bandwidth than 802.11a/g signals?


thanks,
Aaron

Do you mean this: "Channels operating with a width of 40 MHz are another feature incorporated into 802.11n; this doubles the channel width from 20 MHz in previous 802.11 PHYs to transmit data, and provides twice the PHY data rate available over a single 20 MHz channel." - this is quote from Wikipedia.
I suppose this was added to MIMO spec to make sure this format is always faster, with or without MIMO. : )

Hi again, thanks for the reply. I was referring to the actual 3dB bandwidth of the signal (I think they measure it as -6dB for Wifi but don't quote me). Anyway I did a bit more reading and found out that they increased the number of OFDM subcarriers from 52 to 56 between 11a and 11n (sneaky).

thanks,
Aaron